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You are a sales professional for a medium-sized firm. You are entering information into Microsoft Dynamics you organized at a trade show.What type of record should you create for each card?
A. Prospect
B. Lead
C. Account
D. Opportunity
Answer: D

You are a sales manager for a large company that is about to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365. A company called Fabrikam. Inc. has three divisions within the company that purchase services from your firm. You have created an account record for each of the three divisions and for Fabrikam. Inc. and need to link the records.How should you set up the records to properly link the record for Fabrikam, Inc. with its three divisions using Microsoft Dynamics 365 account management?
A. Fabrikam, Inc. is a Primary Contact
B. Fabrikam. Inc. is a Parent account.
C. Fabrikam. Inc. is a Parent Customer.
D. Fabrikam, Inc. is a Child account.
Answer: B

You are a sales manager for your company.
In order to improve sales, you want Microsoft Dynamics 365 to analyze the daily actions and communications of your sales staff. In addition, you would like the analysis data to be used to remind your sales people of upcoming activities and create actionable items to keep them focused.
Which feature of Microsoft Dynamics 365 performs these functions?
A.Auto Capture
B.Relationship Assistant
C.Email Engagement
D.Site Map Designer
Answer: A

An organization uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track Opportunities and Competitors.
They want to make sure that a competitor is always tracked when it is mentioned in an email from a potential customer regarding an opportunity-How can this be achieved using the fewest steps?
A.Instruct users to always manually associate the competitor when the Competitor Mentioned card is shown by the Relationship Assistant.
B.Configure the Relationship Assistant, and check the Card Option for the Competitor Mentioned card to perform the associated action automatically instead of displaying the card.
C.In the configuration for Auto Capture, enable the option to track competitors automatically when mentioned in emails regarding an opportunity.
D.Create a workflow to scan emails for competitor names, and associate the mentioned competitor to the opportunity.
Answer: A

You are a technical support specialist for your company.
The Company's sales staff are issued a company laptop to use when interfacing with Microsoft Dynamics 365. They need to integrate their smart phones with Microsoft Dynamics 365 as well. Many of their phones, however, do not have a supported web browser.
What should you suggest to meet this sales staffs need?
A.Advise them to run the Microsoft Dynamics 365 web app on their phones.
B.Advise them to use the web client to access Microsoft Dynamics 365 from their phones.
C.Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from the Office 365 Admin portal.
D.Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from their phone's store.
Answer: D

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Which cloud computing characteristic enables multi-tenancy and abstracts the location of provided resources?
A. Resource pooling
B. Measured service
C. Rapid elasticity
D. Broad network access
Answer: A

What is a function of a virtual machine manager?
A. Abstracts physical hardware and presents it to a virtual machine
B. Sends resource requests from multiple virtual machines to the hypervisor kernel
C. Maps the virtual machine hardware to the hypervisor kernel
D. Presents resource requests from a virtual machine directly to physical hardware
Answer: A

Which data center management process involves collating and presenting the utilization of resources?
A. Reporting
B. Provisioning
C. Planning
D. Maintenance
Answer: A

What is an accurate statement about a logical volume in a compute system?
A. Can span across multiple physical volumes
B. Can only be created from a single physical volume
C. Must be created across multiple volume groups
D. Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently
Answer: A

Which benefit does the measured service characteristic provide to a cloud service provider?
A. Enables control and optimization of resource use
B. Enables cloud services to communicate with each other
C. Enables availability of specific resources depending on policy
D. Enables the reduction and/or elimination of upfront IT expenditure
Answer: A


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A customer is concerned about DOS attacks from a neighboring facility. Which feature can be enabled to help alleviate these concerns and mitigate DOS attacks on a WLAN?
A. PMF
B. peer-to-peer blocking
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management
D. split tunnel
Answer: A

A customer is concerned that radar is impacting the access point that service the wireless network in an office located near an airport. On which type of channel should you conduct spectrum analysis to identify if radar is impacting the wireless network?
A. UNII-3 channels
B. UNII-1 channels
C. 802.11b channels
D. 2.4 GHz channels
E. UMII-2 channels
F. Channels 1, 5, 9, 13
Answer: E

When you configure BYOD access to the network, you face increased security risks and challenges. Which challenge is resolved by deploying digital client certificates?
A. managing the increase connected devices
B. ensuring wireless LAN performance and reliability
C. providing device choice and support
D. enforcing company usage policies
Answer: D

Access points at branch sites for a company are in FlexConncct mode and perform local switching, but they authenticate to the central RADIUS at headquarters. VPN connections to the headquarters have gone down, but each branch site has a local authentication server. Which three features on the wireless controller can be configured to maintain network operations if this situation reoccurs? (Choose three.)
A. Put APs in FlexConnect Group for Remote Branches.
B. Set Branch RADIUS as Primary.
C. Put APs in AP Group Per Branch.
D. Put APs in FlexConnect Group Per Branch.
E. Set Branch RADIUS OS Secondary.
F. Set HQ RADIUS a-s primary.
Answer: A,E,F

An engineer is configuring client MFP. What WLAN Layer 2 security must be selected to use client MFP?
A. Static WEP
B. CKIP
C. WPA+WPA2
D. 802 1x
Answer: C


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Which two statements describe the Cisco TrustSec system correctly? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco TrustSec system is a partner program, where Cisco certifies third-party security products as extensions to the secure infrastructure.
B. The Cisco TrustSec system is an approach to certifying multimedia and collaboration applications as secure.
C. The Cisco TrustSec system is an Advanced Network Access Control System that leverages enforcement intelligence in the network infrastructure.
D. The Cisco TrustSec system tests and certifies all products and product versions that make up the system as working together in a validated manner.
Answer: C, D

Which three statements about the Cisco IPS sensor are true? (Choose three.)
A. You cannot pair a VLAN with itself.
B. For a given sensing interface, an interface used in a VLAN pair can be a member of another inline interface pair.
C. For a given sensing interface, a VLAN can be a member of only one inline VLAN pair, however, a given VLAN can be a member of an inline VLAN pair on more than one sensing interface.
D. The order in which you specify the VLANs in a inline pair is significant.
E. A sensing interface in inline VLAN pair mode can have from 1 to 255 inline VLAN pairs.
Answer: A, C, E

According ISO27001 ISMS, which of the following are mandatory documents? (Choose 4)
A. ISMS Policy
B. Corrective Action Procedure
C. IS Procedures
D. Risk Assessment Reports
E. Complete Inventory of all information assets
Answer: A, B, C, D

Which three statements are true regarding Security Group Tags? (Choose three.)
A. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as a separate authorization result.
B. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as part of a standard authorization profile.
C. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result using Cisco ACS 5.x.
D. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result for 802.1X, MAC Authentication Bypass, and WebAuth methods of authentication.
E. A Security Group Tag is a variable length string that is returned as an authorization result.
Answer: A, C, D

Which two certificate enrollment methods can be completed without an RA and require no direct connection to a CA by the end entity? (Choose two.)
A. SCEP
B. TFTP
C. manual cut and paste
D. enrollment profile with direct HTTP
E. PKCS#12 import/export
Answer: C, E

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Share some Java and Middleware 1Z0-808 exam questions and answers below.
Which two statements are true? 
A. Error class is unextendable. 
B. Error class is extendable. 
C. Error is a RuntimeException. 
D. Error is an Exception. 
E. Error is a Throwable. 
Answer: B,C

Which statement is true about the switch statement? 
A. It must contain the default section. 
B. The break statement, at the end of each case block, is mandatory. 
C. Its case label literals can be changed at runtime. 
D. Its expression must evaluate to a single value. 
Answer: D

Which two class definitions fail to compile? 
A. abstract class A3 {private static int i;public void doStuff(){}public A3(){}} 
B. final class A1 {public A1(){}} 
C. public class A2 {private static int i;private A2(){}} 
D. class A4 {protected static final int i;private void doStuff(){}} 
E. final abstract class A5 {protected static int i;void doStuff(){}abstract void doIt();} 
Answer: C,E

Which three statements are true about the structure of a Java class? 
A. A public class must have a main method. 
B. A class can have only one private constructor. 
C. A method can have the same name as a field. 
D. A class can have overloaded static methods. 
E. The methods are mandatory components of a class. 
F. The fields need not be initialized before use. 
Answer: A,C,E

What is the name of the Java concept that uses access modifiers to protect variables and hide them within a class? 
A. Encapsulation 
B. Inheritance 
C. Abstraction 
D. Instantiation 
E. Polymorphism 
Answer: A

Which statement is true about Java byte code? 
A. It can run on any platform. 
B. It can run on any platform only if it was compiled for that platform. 
C. It can run on any platform that has the Java Runtime Environment. 
D. It can run on any platform that has a Java compiler. 
E. It can run on any platform only if that platform has both the Java Runtime Environment and a Java compiler. 
Answer: D

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Share some CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam questions and answers below.
Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.) 
A. FD00::2 
B. 192.168.2.2 
C. FF05::2 
D. 226.10.10.10 
E. 240.1.0.1 
Answer: CE

What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card? 
A. 3 
B. 4 
C. 5 
D. 6 
Answer: A

Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two) 
A. Virtual Port Channel 
B. Layer 3 
C. Virtual Device Contexts 
D. iSCSI 
E. Fibre Channel 
Answer: BC

Which type of media uses electromagnetic waves that are generated by lasers, is often used in campus backbones, and is capable of transmitting to a distance of 60 kilometers? 
A. shielded twisted-pair cable 
B. coaxial cable 
C. multimode fiber-optic cable 
D. single-mode fiber-optic cable 
Answer: C

A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial number? 
A. MDS-A# show license serial-number 
B. MDS-A# show running-config I include serial-number 
C. MDS-A# show host-id 
D. MDS-A# show license host-id 
Answer: D

What layer of the OSI Model provides the logical addressing that routers use for path determination? 
A. transport 
B. network 
C. application 
D. presentation 
Answer: B

Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two) 
A. feature vtp 
B. vtp client mode 
C. vtp VLAN 
D. vtp version 
E. vtp static 
Answer: A,D

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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below.
An end user is running Cisco Jabber on the desktop. Which two icons must be selected to make a video call? (Choose two.) 
A. Contacts icon 
B. phone icon 
C. person icon 
D. message icon 
E. web video conferencing icon 
Answer: A,B

Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface? 
A. Administration > Update System Info 
B. Configure > System Parameters 
C. Configure > Phones 
D. Configure > Extensions 
Answer: C

Which component is needed to facilitate the connection between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Presence Server? 
A. SIP trunk 
B. H.323 gateway 
C. Gatekeeper 
D. MGCP gateway 
E. Cisco Unified Border Element 
Answer: A

Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.) 
A. Create 
B. Modify 
C. Migrate 
D. Update 
E. Delete 
F. Export 
G. Purge 
H. Manage 
Answer: A,D,E,F

An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers? 
A. partition 
B. route group 
C. route list 
D. calling search space 
Answer: D

An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. 
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications? 
A. Select the "?" button on the IP phone. 
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone. 
C. Select Settings > User Preferences. 
D. Select Settings > Device Configuration. 
Answer: B

On the PSTN gateway, a network engineer runs sh isdn status and finds the Layer 2 state of each interface to be "TEI_ASSIGNED". What is the status of PSTN connectivity from this gateway? 
A. The T1 interfaces are established and operational. 
B. This information does not indicate the status of PSTN connectivity from the gateway. 
C. The T1 interfaces are down. 
D. The T1 interfaces are being tested by the carrier. 
Answer: C

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Share some IBM Certified Specialist C9020-667 exam questions and answers below.
Which key metric drives a customer's disaster recovery strategy? 
A. ROI 
B. RTO 
C. TCA 
D. TCO 
Answer: B

A bank customer has two sites in Italy and France. One site uses IBM storage and the other uses a competitor. 
Which IBM solution is required for block storage when unifying the sites for disaster recovery? 
A. XIV 
B. ESS 
C. DS8000 
D. IBM Spectrum Control 
Answer: D

What is a customer with storage management constraints likely to inquire about? 
A. IBM Spectrum Control 
B. IBM Spectrum Protect 
C. IBM Spectrum Archive 
D. IBM Spectrum Accelerate 
Answer: A

What simplifies customer training requirements for storage management across multiple IBM enterprise offerings? 
A. Redbooks 
B. Storage GUIs 
C. DS Storage Manager 
D. Directed Maintenance Package 
Answer: B

Which characteristic of a customer's server defines the storage device that could be attached? 
A. Form factor 
B. Clock speed 
C. Memory size 
D. Operating system 
Answer: D

A mainframe customer wants to store petabytes of encrypted backups. The customer does not want to use physical tape any longer but does not wish to change any backup processes. 
Which solution should the sales person propose to the customer? 
A. TS7740 
B. DS8000 
C. ProtecTIER 
D. XIV Hot Encryption 
Answer: A

Which product will allow a customer to aggregate, monitor, and recommend optimization for existing storage? 
A. SVC 
B. ESS 
C. IBM Spectrum Control 
D. IBM Spectrum Virtualize 
Answer: C

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Share some MCSA 70-765 exam questions and answers below.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets stated goals. Your company plans to use Microsoft Azure Resource Manager templates for all future deployments of SQL Server on Azure virtual machines. You need to create the templates. 
Solution: You create the desired SQL Server configuration in an Azure Resource Group, then export the Resource Group template and save it to the Templates Library. Does the solution meet the goal? 
A. Yes 
B. No 
Answer: B

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have deployed several GS-series virtual machines (VMs) in Microsoft Azure. You plan to deploy Microsoft SQL Server in a development environment. Each VM has a dedicated disk for backups.You need to backup a database to the local disk on a VM. The backup must be replicated to another region. Which storage option should you use? 
A. Premium P10 disk storage 
B. Premium P20 diskstorage 
C. Premium P30 disk storage 
D. Standard locally redundant disk storage 
E. Standard geo-redundant disk storage 
F. Standard zone redundant blob storage 
G. Standard locally redundant blob storage 
H. Standard geo-redundant blob storage 
Answer: E

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